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"Virgin" or "Girl?"

It is quite clear, according to the New Testament of The HOLY BIBLE, that the earthly mother of Jesus - namely, Mary - was not merely a maid or young woman, but (quite frankly).....a bonafide and actual virgin - sexually.

The word "virgin" is not to be relegated by demented, warped, twisted-nutcase heretics to whatever far-out and off-the-wall similes, metaphors, allegories, or symbols supposedly representing something or someone other than exactly and only what the typical dictionary definition is regarding that certain particular characteristic of a female human described as a bodily-sexual: "virgin," which is: virginity.....and NOTHING else!

Such is non-mistakably obvious not only regarding the record of Matthew 1:23 in all the listed English Bible translations and the inerrant Scrivener/Trinitarian Greek Text shown below:



but also the record of Luke 1:35 in view of the following:

Plainly from basic rational and reasonable logic, all younger-women virgins are younger women, but not all younger women are younger-women virgins, with the dictionary definitions of the word "virgin" applying when in agreement with the overall canonical-Scriptural definitions of "virgin." Such a crucial distinction is vital for a proper understanding of the Lord's will pertaining to whether the words "younger widows" should be used for the correct English-language rendition of First Timothy 5:14 or rather the KJV words "younger women" are instead appropriate:



There has been much lamentable controversy with far-reaching horrific anti-RSV consequences concerning Matthew 1:22:



which is the verse immediately preceding the already-shown Matthew 1:23 segment above....as to the actual and exact recorded Old-Testament source which would identify "the prophet" mentioned in Matthew 1:22.

Typical consensus accords Matthew 1:22:



with the following Old-Testament reference:



But DOES the Hebrew Isaiah 7:14 passage ACTUALLY contain the word "virgin?"

Every English translation portrayed for Isaiah 7:14 above - except the RSV, BBE, and JPS - displays the word "virgin" associated with Strong's word number 05959.....leading one to quickly conclude that "the majority rules," and the three discrepant translations mentioned above are errant aberrations concerning at least this particular passage of Scripture (for whatever cause and not reason).

However, let's see if the seemingly non-errant non-aberrant English translations consistently have 05959 translated "virgin" or apply some other Strong number to the word "virgin."

First considered is Genesis 24:16:



Oh oh!

The AVRLE (i.e. the Authorized Version [a.k.a. King James] Red Letter Edition) and the NKJV (new King James Version) have that word "virgin" instead associated with Strong's number 01330 and NOT Strong's number 05959! Most every translation shown above does have the word "virgin" (or euphemistic equivalent) for that passage.

So ARE there two DIFFERENT Hebrew words for "virgin?"

What IS obvious is that THERE IS A SERIOUS PROBLEM there!!!

The next passage is Genesis 24:43:

Now we have all sorts of words - some intrinsically discrepant against the others - for the selected inferior-gendered person referred to in the Scriptural passage (e.g. young woman, virgin, girl, and damsel).

Of course, "damsel" and "girl" could be considered somewhat synonymous, although there is ONLY ONE BEST English word to use which the present Body of Christ should agree upon for non-confusing unity....whether that is: "damsel" or instead (and not including): "girl." [And "damsel" is pathetically archaic and silly-sounding for modern usage].

The word "maiden" - however - is in a significantly DIFFERENT category (even though it is remotely but NON-applicably and NON-directly related).....in that "maiden" refers to a young "maid," which specifically implies servitude of some female-gendered human person.

In strange non-explainable reversal, the AVRLE and NKJV in the Genesis 24:43 passage are back to associating Strong word number 05959 instead of 01330 with the word "virgin."

Why???

WHY is the word "virgin" back to Strong's word number 05959 and not Strong's word number 01330 which new latter number (01330) they had then associated with the word "virgin?"

At this point, it behooves the reader to not be tempted to dismiss all this extremely-detailed and very-narrowly-focused Bible study as "a hang-up" or "obsession" or "trifles" or "missing the overall point" or "tedious nitpicking."

Remember what was stated earlier pertaining to that:

Plainly from basic rational and reasonable logic, all younger-women virgins are younger women, but not all younger women are younger-women virgins, with the dictionary definitions of the word "virgin" applying when in agreement with the overall canonical-Scriptural definitions of "virgin." Such a crucial distinction is vital for a proper understanding of the Lord's will pertaining to whether the words "younger widows" should be used for the correct English-language rendition of First Timothy 5:14 or rather the KJV words "younger women" are instead appropriate:



With that vital reminder in mind, the next passage to consider is Exodus 2:8:



Another switcheroo!!!

Both the AVRLE and the NKJV are this time associating Strong's word number 05959 with the word "maid" (in the case of the AVRLE) and the word "maiden" (in the case of the NKJV)!

Remember that the AVRLE and NKJV had Strong's word number 01330 associated with the word "virgin" for Genesis 24:16. Then for Genesis 24:43 they had Strong's word number 05959 associated with the word "virgin." Now in Exodus 2:8 they have Strong's word number 05959 associated with the words "maid" and "maiden!"

One final passage considered is Job 31:1:



Another flip-flop!

This time the AVRLE is back to associating Strong's word number 01330 with the word: "maid" and the NKJV for the first time associates that number with the words: "young woman."

Now, notice in ALL the passages shown above, the RSV [Revised Standard Version] ALWAYS associates Strong's word number 01330 with "virgin" while ALWAYS associating Strong's word number 05959 with "young woman" or "girl"!!!

Expedient it is to once again employ brute logic to insure correct understanding of what is transpiring here:

Close examination of the differences in Hebrew alphabet lettering between Strong's word number 01330 compared with Strong's word number 05959 reveals whether or not Strong's numbering system is capricious. Hopefully the reader will seriously peruse and study that.

Moreover, it certainly would be nonsensical to have two different Strong word numbers for our one-and-only six-lettered (and only 6-lettered!) English word "virgin!" IF (and a big IF!) there were one or more different English alphabet-lettered words for "virgin" meaning NOT 'essentially' but instead exactly THE SAME THING, it would be reasonable (indeed absolutely necessary) for Strong to have given different numbers to the two or more differently-alphabet-lettered English words conveying the PRECISE idea and concept of "virgin" (IF that was possible!) -- while it would be totally ridiculous to give different Strong numbers to the EXACT alphabet letters "v i r g i n."

And synonymns have an entirely different set of alphabet letters compared to each other, and thus a different Strong number would be required for each of them.

With that info established, which English translation: the RSV.....or instead the AVRLE or NKJV.....is correct for Isaiah 7:14?

If you, the inquisitive quasi-scholar, need more enlightenment and verification, compare the exact English word discrepancies in the following passages of:

Genesis 24:16 (whether or not Rebekkah should be called a "virgin" for Word 1330)
Genesis 24:43 (whether or not Rebekkah should be called a "virgin" for Word 5959instead)
Exodus 2:8 (whether or not Moses' sister should be called a "girl" for Word 5959)
Job 31:1 (whether or not the gal mentioned should be called a "virgin" for Word 1330)
Isaiah 7:14 (whether or not the gal mentioned should be called a "virgin" for Word 5959)

taken from an interlinear Hebrew-Greek-English Bible displaying the inerrant ben-Asher Masoretic Hebrew Text of the Old Testament edited by Jay P. Greene published by Hendrickson Publishers of Peabody Massachusetts:

Genesis 24:16



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Genesis 24:43



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Exodus 2:8



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Job 31:1



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Isaiah 7:14

Obviously, there are serious and irreconcilable contradictions as to certain English terms used in the Hebrew-English segments below, because - again - the words "virgin" and "girl" are simply NOT synonymous nor exactly interchangeable according to clear and non-deniable logic - being that not all "girls" are necessarily "virgins" and moreover NOT all female virgins are merely: "girls:"

For the record, the King James type translations (and NOT the RSV) are correct in the Isaiah 7:14 passage.

When the canonical Scripture mentions snippets from other books not included in the accepted and traditional canon of the Holy Bible, are we obligated to read parts or the entirety of them also (IF they can be found)?

Joshua 10:13 And the sun stood still, and the moon stayed, until the nation took vengeance on their enemies. Is this not written in the Book of Jashar? The sun stayed in the midst of heaven, and did not hasten to go down for about a whole day.

II Samuel 1:17 And David lamented with this lamentation over Saul and Jonathan his son,
II Samuel 1:18 and he said it should be taught to the people of Judah; behold, it is written in the Book of Jashar. He said:
II Samuel 1:19 "Thy glory, O Israel, is slain upon thy high places! How are the mighty fallen!

Why would they be? What purpose(s) would it serve? IS such authorized by the Holy Spirit of Jesus Christ?

The book of Jashar is not contained (not to mention found) in Hebrew/Jewish canonical Old-Testament Torah nor Prophets nor Writings.

And what Old-Testament book is the following in?

II Timothy 3:8 As Jannes and Jambres opposed Moses, so these men also oppose the truth, men of corrupt mind and counterfeit faith

WHERE are the exact and precise names of "Jannes" and "Jambres" found in any Old-Testament book?

Or how about this one:

Hebrews 11:37 They were stoned, they were sawn asunder, they were killed with the sword; they went about in skins of sheep and goats, destitute, afflicted, ill-treated.....

"...were sawn asunder...." (?) What Old-Testament book is THAT specifically found in?

More:

Jude 1:9 But when the archangel Michael, contending with the devil, disputed about the body of Moses, he did not presume to pronounce a reviling judgment upon him, but said, "The Lord rebuke you."

In WHAT Old-Testament book is it recorded that the devil disputed with Mike about the body of Moses?